raharris1973
Well-known member
What if Britain, followed by France, declared war on Germany right after the occupation of Prague in March 1939.
Chamberlain does this in a fit of pique over Hitler pissing over Munich, riding popular outrage, while rationalizing that it frees Britain's hands to commence blockade and all-out economic warfare, including freezing of Czech funds in British banks.
Like in OTL, the ground war in Europe is 'phony' with no plan for an attack into Germany. It is even worse because the French are not ready for the limited Saar move of OTL.
With war declared and being fought at sea, London and Paris are not trying to calm matters and thus do not discourage any eastern neighbors of Germany, like Poland, from mobilizing.
Some questions follow:
Does Italy DoW the west in solidarity with Germany?
Does Italy still occupy/annex Albania on schedule in April 1939, or put that off in light of the new aggressive Anglo-French stance?
I assume Hitler starts making overtures to the USSR earlier for a nonaggression and especially a trade deal (or does he not?).
Is Stalin any less receptive to it than OTL?
Stalin is dealing with some broadly similar opportunities- to expand in Eastern Europe, and stand aside from a west vs Germany conflict. But he is dealing with a somewhat different set of evidence and historical record of western behavior compared to OTL, and earlier. Instead of seeing the westerners break a guarantee and promise a new one to Poland he's seen them sacrifice Czechoslovakia but declare war over it and blockade Germany, showing more seriousness. On the other hand, lack of a ground offensive still shows some unseriousness.
Will Germany attack west into France and the Low Countries in 1939? Or wait until 1939 for some reason?
If not attacking west ASAP, would Germany do any preliminary campaigns first against Poland or Denmark Norway to secure flanks, resources or borders?
How would any German 1939 campaigning do?
Additional questions would be if a spring 1939 DoW on Germany could hurt Britain or especially France by activating US Neutrality laws if the time and thereby preventing exports of any important munitions, aircraft or other materiel to the Allies in the spring and summer months of 1939?
Additionally is Britain and France being in a declared state of war with Germany before May 1939 forces Britain to make further appeasing concessions to Japan to prevent a diplomatic break and war on that front- perhaps having to hand over the silver in the vaults of Tianjin? Or could hotheads in North China and Japan see British encumbrance by war with Germany as an opportunity to drive them out of China by force that cannot be passed up?
Chamberlain does this in a fit of pique over Hitler pissing over Munich, riding popular outrage, while rationalizing that it frees Britain's hands to commence blockade and all-out economic warfare, including freezing of Czech funds in British banks.
Like in OTL, the ground war in Europe is 'phony' with no plan for an attack into Germany. It is even worse because the French are not ready for the limited Saar move of OTL.
With war declared and being fought at sea, London and Paris are not trying to calm matters and thus do not discourage any eastern neighbors of Germany, like Poland, from mobilizing.
Some questions follow:
Does Italy DoW the west in solidarity with Germany?
Does Italy still occupy/annex Albania on schedule in April 1939, or put that off in light of the new aggressive Anglo-French stance?
I assume Hitler starts making overtures to the USSR earlier for a nonaggression and especially a trade deal (or does he not?).
Is Stalin any less receptive to it than OTL?
Stalin is dealing with some broadly similar opportunities- to expand in Eastern Europe, and stand aside from a west vs Germany conflict. But he is dealing with a somewhat different set of evidence and historical record of western behavior compared to OTL, and earlier. Instead of seeing the westerners break a guarantee and promise a new one to Poland he's seen them sacrifice Czechoslovakia but declare war over it and blockade Germany, showing more seriousness. On the other hand, lack of a ground offensive still shows some unseriousness.
Will Germany attack west into France and the Low Countries in 1939? Or wait until 1939 for some reason?
If not attacking west ASAP, would Germany do any preliminary campaigns first against Poland or Denmark Norway to secure flanks, resources or borders?
How would any German 1939 campaigning do?
Additional questions would be if a spring 1939 DoW on Germany could hurt Britain or especially France by activating US Neutrality laws if the time and thereby preventing exports of any important munitions, aircraft or other materiel to the Allies in the spring and summer months of 1939?
Additionally is Britain and France being in a declared state of war with Germany before May 1939 forces Britain to make further appeasing concessions to Japan to prevent a diplomatic break and war on that front- perhaps having to hand over the silver in the vaults of Tianjin? Or could hotheads in North China and Japan see British encumbrance by war with Germany as an opportunity to drive them out of China by force that cannot be passed up?
.