History Learner
Well-known member
HL
a) Right, I'll say it again. Reaching Moscow, even with more forces and earlier than OTL is not necessarily taking it. As I've said before its like Stalingrad but earlier and on a much bigger scale. Urban fighting is bloody difficult for an attacker, especially one at the end of a long supply lane and worn down by several months of hard fighting. The Germans can get parts of the urban area but the Soviets can fed in forces as available and necessary to hold them and let them bled out while building up for a counter-offensive. Its not a binary situation that the 1st battalion of German forces reaching the outskirts mean the city is immediately captured.
I understand this is your position but the problem with it that I'm trying to point out is that there were no Soviet forces in Moscow to turn it into a Stalingrad. This is why Zhukov stated the following:
“It was an extremely dangerous situation,” Zhukov says in the 1966 recording, responding to questions from the Soviet writer Konstantin Simonov. “In essence, all the approaches to Moscow were open.”
Zhukov stated this because there were no troops in the city and he had only 90,000 outside of it. We also have the Soviet timetable of other formations arriving, which show serious reinforcements did not begin to arrive until November. Stalin nearly evacuated the City on October 15th, with panic spreading across the city precisely because the average cities realized they were unprotected. In short, what I'm trying to say is that Moscow could not become a "Stalingrad" because it would have no defenders. If we're assuming the invasion still starts on June 22nd and proceeds as historical, then there is a period of two to four weeks where, once the last defense line is broken, there are no defenders of the city. How do the Germans fail to capture it in such circumstances?
b) You still need to get those trucks and the fuel to where they need to operate, especially since there's no capacity, unlike in N Africa, to move stuff by sea to save oil and wear and tear on vehicles as they advance to the front. Those 6,000-8,000 extra trucks may be available but they won't solve all the problems, especially since their likely to be spread over all the fronts not just AGC. - That is assuming they exist as skimming through the link I can see a reference to 7,000 trucks the Italians used to support their own forces and to 2,000 used by Rommel in support of his forces for the attack in spring 42 which lead to the capture of Tobruk. I may have missed a reference but numbers are generally fairly easy to pick up. Even if he had that many at some point how many would be captured from British forces, which wouldn't be available in the proposed
scenario? I do notice that your not defending the idea that 70,000 additional trucks were available in 1941.
For one, there is the capacity to move things by sea, as illustrated by Army Group North using the Baltic ports for its advance on Leningrad. In terms of what Army Group Center could do, instead of driving them directly from Germany, they would use the railways, which is what they did to get them to North Africa. They were moved through the Alps to ports in Italy and the Balkans and then transported by ship to North Africa; said trains can be sent East instead of South here. The 8,000 figure is what Rommel requested in late 1941, and to which Hitler granted; it is exclusive of all the other numbers and is solely German production models (perhaps captured French models too, but nothing would change there) shipped from Germany itself.
As just mentioned, Rommel's request came later in 1941. This is important because, following the capture of Kiev, Hitler again prioritized Army Group Center for its advance upon Moscow, including stripping entire Panzer Armies from the other Army Groups and releasing 3,000 trucks from the strategic reserve to bolster their motor capacity. Given this prioritization, the trucks, which were released about the same time, would most likely go to Army Group Center. I specifically chose the 6,000 figure, as that leaves the remaining 2,000 to go to the other Army Groups, should Berlin so wish.
As stated, the 6,000 figure is inclusive of the expected losses. As stated before in the article, Army Group Center needed 13,500 tons of supplies a day and their existing motor lift capacity was only sufficient for 6,500 tons. An additional 3,000 trucks, based on their average capacity, would allow for the 13,500 to be reached. Why 6,000 then? Because, as you note, there would be wear and tear as well as enemy action. The average loss rate in North Africa and Russia that year was 30-40% in trucks, which means that 3,000 would not be sufficient alone as many would be lost. However, this is where the 6,000 comes in play:
6,000 * 0.35 (median) = 2,100
6,000 - 2,100 = 3,900
With 6,000 trucks, not only would Army Group Center be able to continuously meet its base needs in logistics, it would also be able to accumulate a surplus stockpile in case of need. As far as mud and road conditions, with Moscow in German hands, they would have access to multiple all weather roads; I've already brought up the Minsk to Moscow Military Highway, but there was others that would be in German hands.
c) Your evading the issue. Its not that such equipment might be available in the timescale Havlat listed, i.e. 41-43 but that they wouldn't be available in summer/autumn 41.
To that, I agree, in that everything would not be available in 1941 but your question, as I understood it, was concerning the need to occupy France continuously.
d) The quote from Horne you mentioned shows that such a statement - that France would look after its own interests by its own efforts - existed. It might well have been French bluster but that doesn't change that it occurred.
Yes but, to be frank, you're evading the context on that. The French did say that, but as Horne notes in the paragraph that is contained, the British were throwing it back at them in response to the French request for support in dealing with the Rhineland Crisis. The French said it, yes, but the moment they were tested on it they immediately sought help from the British.
e) As Horne mentions "It was an absurd exaggeration (see below, p. 75), " in terms of Gamelin's statement of German forces and that a sizeable proportion of them were already in the Rhineland. As you say he was a political soldier and no friend to the current government so that could be the reason he mislead them. Or possibly French intelligence was that bad, although that seems unlikely. In the latter case then a reasonably accurate report of German strength is a quite possible butterfly.
Yes, the German Army in 1936 was weak. However, as Horne also points out, so too was the French Army; it had been underfunded for years as a result of the Great Depression. The only way to rectify this was to order a general mobilization of the French Army, which was rejected because the elections were coming up and it would be, to put it mildly, extremely unpopular with the electorate which still had vivid memories of World War I. France had already prematurely pulled out of the Rhineland years earlier, so it was already clear, politically, where the French populace stood on the matter, particularly with Britain already taking the position it was fair for the Germans to secure their own territory.
f) France still had a markedly more powerful army than Germany at this stage. Which is why the German army had been ordered to beat a hasty retreat if France had acted. Similarly while the British home army was small the Italian one wasn't that great and to defeat Italy in a crisis over Ethiopia needs a navy more than an army and I doubt you would claim that the RN was up to the task! Even ignoring British control of Gibraltar and Suez. Plus the RAF may have had no Hurricanes at that time but what did Italy have?
Steve
That France, if it mobilized, was more powerful than Germany is not in dispute. The problem is there standing military was not sufficient and to mobilize before the election was out of the question; to give further context, 1936 saw the Popular Front sweep into power and replace the existing government. That the SFIO were no friends of the French Military and Defense spending cannot be exaggerated.
With regards to Italy, that's exactly the issue in part; Britain had to deal with two crisis at the same time and only had the resources for one. Given the rise of Germany, they had no interest in risking the Stresa Front further by confronting Italy, which is why they refused to persecute it and their own weakness in the Army is why they couldn't do much about Germany, even had the political will been there in 1936. Overall, however, it needs to be noted that, with only two Divisions able to be deployed, the Suez would've quickly been in Italian hands and Gibraltar did not matter to Italy, given their geographic position.
There are reasons why the Anglo-French acted as they did in 1936-1939; they were not stupid, but, as a result of previous decisions, their capacity to act was very limited.